Released ISC CSSLP Updated Questions PDF
CSSLP Dumps and Practice Test (349 Exam Questions)
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which of the following organizations assists the President in overseeing the preparation of the federal budget and to supervise its administration in Executive Branch agencies?
- A. DCAA
- B. NSA/CSS
- C. OMB
- D. NIST
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is a Cabinet-level office, and is the largest office within the Executive Office of the President (EOP) of the United States. The current OMB Director is Peter Orszag and was appointed by President Barack Obama. The OMB's predominant mission is to assist the President in overseeing the preparation of the federal budget and to supervise its administration in Executive Branch agencies. In helping to formulate the President's spending plans, the OMB evaluates the effectiveness of agency programs, policies, and procedures, assesses competing funding demands among agencies, and sets funding priorities. The OMB ensures that agency reports, rules, testimony, and proposed legislation are consistent with the President's Budget and with Administration policies. Answer D is incorrect. The DCAA has the aim to monitor contractor costs and perform contractor audits. Answer C is incorrect. The National Security Agency/Central Security Service (NSA/CSS) is a crypto-logic intelligence agency of the United States government. It is administered as part of the United States Department of Defense. NSA is responsible for the collection and analysis of foreign communications and foreign signals intelligence, which involves cryptanalysis. NSA is also responsible for protecting U.S. government communications and information systems from similar agencies elsewhere, which involves cryptography. NSA is a key component of the U.S. Intelligence Community, which is headed by the Director of National Intelligence. The Central Security Service is a co-located agency created to coordinate intelligence activities and cooperation between NSA and U.S. military cryptanalysis agencies. NSA's work is limited to communications intelligence. It does not perform field or human intelligence activities. Answer B is incorrect. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), known between 1901 and 1988 as the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory which is a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute's official mission is to promote U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve quality of life.
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following terms related to risk management represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur?
- A. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)
- B. Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
- C. Exposure Factor (EF)
- D. Safeguard
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur. AnswerD is incorrect. The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE). Answer: A is incorrect. The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollars that is assigned to a single event. SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) Answer: C is incorrect. Safeguard acts as a countermeasure for reducing the risk associated with a specific threat or a group of threats.
NEW QUESTION # 76
A Web-based credit card company had collected financial and personal details of Mark before issuing him a credit card. The company has now provided Mark's financial and personal details to another company. Which of the following Internet laws has the credit card issuing company violated?
- A. Security law
- B. Privacy law
- C. Trademark law
- D. Copyright law
Answer: B
Explanation:
The credit card issuing company has violated the Privacy law. According to the Internet Privacy law, a company cannot provide their customer's financial and personal details to other companies. Answer A is incorrect. Trademark laws facilitate the protection of trademarks around the world. Answer B is incorrect. There is no law such as Security law. Answer D is incorrect. The Copyright law protects original works or creations of authorship including literary, dramatic, musical, artistic, and certain other intellectual works.
NEW QUESTION # 77
The NIST ITL Cloud Research Team defines some primary and secondary technologies as the fundamental elements of cloud computing in its "Effectively and Securely Using the Cloud Computing Paradigm" presentation. Which of the following technologies are included in the primary technologies? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Free and open source software
- B. SOA
- C. Virtualization
- D. Web application framework
- E. Explanation:
The primary technologies defined by the NIST ITL Cloud Research Team in its
"Effectively and Securely Using the Cloud Computing Paradigm" presentation are as follows:
Virtualization Grid technology SOA (Service Oriented Architecture) Distributed computing
Broadband network Browser as a platform Free and open source software
Answer: A,B,C,E
Explanation:
is incorrect.
It is defined as the secondary technology.
NEW QUESTION # 78
In which of the following types of tests are the disaster recovery checklists distributed to the members of disaster recovery team and asked to review the assigned checklist?
- A. Parallel test
- B. Full-interruption test
- C. Simulation test
- D. Checklist test
Answer: D
Explanation:
A checklist test is a test in which the disaster recovery checklists are distributed to the members of the disaster recovery team. All members are asked to review the assigned checklist. The checklist test is a simple test and it is easy to conduct this test. It allows to accomplish the following three goals: It ensures that the employees are aware of their responsibilities and they have the refreshed knowledge. It provides an individual with an opportunity to review the checklists for obsolete information and update any items that require modification during the changes in the organization. It ensures that the assigned members of disaster recovery team are still working for the organization. Answer B is incorrect. A simulation test is a method used to test the disaster recovery plans. It operates just like a structured walkthrough test. In the simulation test, the members of a disaster recovery team present with a disaster scenario and then, discuss on appropriate responses. These suggested responses are measured and some of them are taken by the team. The range of the simulation test should be defined carefully for avoiding excessive disruption of normal business activities. Answer A is incorrect. A parallel test includes the next level in the testing procedure, and relocates the employees to an alternate recovery site and implements site activation procedures. These employees present with their disaster recovery responsibilities as they would for an actual disaster. The disaster recovery sites have full responsibilities to conduct the day-to-day organization's business. Answer C is incorrect. A full-interruption test includes the operations that shut down at the primary site and are shifted to the recovery site according to the disaster recovery plan. It operates just like a parallel test. The full-interruption test is very expensive and difficult to arrange. Sometimes, it causes a major disruption of operations if the test fails.
NEW QUESTION # 79
In which of the following IDS evasion attacks does an attacker send a data packet such that IDS accepts the data packet but the host computer rejects it?
- A. Evasion attack
- B. Fragmentation overlap attack
- C. Insertion attack
- D. Fragmentation overwrite attack
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In an insertion attack, an IDS accepts a packet and assumes that the host computer will also accept it. But in reality, when a host system rejects the packet, the IDS accepts the attacking string that will exploit vulnerabilities in the IDS. Such attacks can badly infect IDS signatures and IDS signature analysis.
AnswerB is incorrect. In this approach, an attacker sends packets in such a manner that one packet
fragment overlaps data from a previous fragment. The information is organized in the packets in such a manner that when the victim's computer reassembles the packets, an attack string is executed on the victim's computer. Since the attacking string is in fragmented form, IDS is unable to detect it. AnswerC is incorrect. In this approach, an attacker sends packets in such a manner that one packet fragment overwrites data from a previous fragment. The information is organized into the packets in such a manner that when the victim's computer reassembles the packets, an attack string is executed on the victim's computer. Since the attacking string is in fragmented form, IDS becomes unable to detect it. Answer A is incorrect. An evasion attack is one in which an IDS rejects a malicious packet but the host computer accepts it. Since an IDS has rejected it, it does not check the contents of the packet. Hence, using this technique, an attacker can exploit the host computer. In many cases, it is quite simple for an attacker to send such data packets that can easily perform evasion attacks on an IDSs.
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which of the following statements are true about declarative security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. In this security, authentication decisions are made based on the business logic.
- B. It is employed in a layer that relies outside of the software code or uses attributes of the code.
- C. In this security, the security decisions are based on explicit statements.
- D. It applies the security policies on the software applications at their runtime.
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Declarative security applies the security policies on the software applications at their runtime. In this type of security, the security decisions are based on explicit statements that confine security behavior. Declarative security applies security permissions that are required for the software application to access the local resources and provides role-based access control to an individual software component and software application. It is employed in a layer that relies outside of the software code or uses attributes of the code. Answer C is incorrect. In declarative security, authentication decisions are coarse-grained in nature from an operational or external security perspective.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which of the following terms related to risk management represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur?
- A. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)
- B. Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
- C. Exposure Factor (EF)
- D. Safeguard
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur. Answer D is incorrect. The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE). Answer A is incorrect. The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollars that is assigned to a single event. SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) Answer C is incorrect. Safeguard acts as a countermeasure for reducing the risk associated with a specific threat or a group of threats.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Who amongst the following makes the final accreditation decision?
- A. CRO
- B. ISSE
- C. DAA
- D. ISSO
Answer: C
Explanation:
The DAA, also known as Authorizing Official, makes the final accreditation decision. The Designated Approving Authority (DAA), in the United States Department of Defense, is the official with the authority to formally assume responsibility for operating a system at an acceptable level of risk. The DAA is responsible for implementing system security. The DAA can grant the accreditation and can determine that the system's risks are not at an acceptable level and the system is not ready to be operational. Answer D is incorrect. An Information System Security Officer (ISSO) plays the role of a supporter. The responsibilities of an Information System Security Officer (ISSO) are as follows: Manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A). Insures the information systems configuration with the agency's information security policy. Supports the information system owner/information owner for the completion of security-related responsibilities. Takes part in the formal configuration management process. Prepares Certification & Accreditation (C&A) packages. Answer A is incorrect. An Information System Security Engineer (ISSE) plays the role of an advisor. The responsibilities of an Information System Security Engineer are as follows: Provides view on the continuous monitoring of the information system. Provides advice on the impacts of system changes. Takes part in the configuration management process. Takes part in the development activities that are required to implement system changes. Follows approved system changes. Answer B is incorrect. A Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is also known as Chief Risk Management Officer (CRMO). The Chief Risk Officer or Chief Risk Management Officer of a corporation is the executive accountable for enabling the efficient and effective governance of significant risks, and related opportunities, to a business and its various segments. Risks are commonly categorized as strategic, reputational, operational, financial, or compliance-related. CRO's are accountable to the Executive Committee and The Board for enabling the business to balance risk and reward. In more complex organizations, they are generally responsible for coordinating the organization's Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) approach.
NEW QUESTION # 83
You work as the Senior Project manager in Dotcoiss Inc. Your company has started a software project using configuration management and has completed 70% of it. You need to ensure that the network infrastructure devices and networking standards used in this project are installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed project design documentation. Which of the following procedures will you employ to accomplish the task?
- A. Configuration control
- B. Physical configuration audit
- C. Functional configuration audit
- D. Configuration identification
Answer: B
Explanation:
Physical Configuration Audit (PCA) is one of the practices used in Software Configuration Management for Software Configuration Auditing. The purpose of the software PCA is to ensure that the design and reference documentation is consistent with the as-built software product. PCA checks and matches the really implemented layout with the documented layout. Answer C is incorrect. Functional Configuration Audit or FCA is one of the practices used in Software Configuration Management for Software Configuration Auditing. FCA occurs either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A Functional Configuration Audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved. Answer B is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item's attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Answer A is incorrect. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed.
NEW QUESTION # 84
You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You need to secure web services of your company in order to have secure transactions. Which of the following will you recommend for providing security?
- A. SSL
- B. S/MIME
- C. VPN
- D. HTTP
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a commonly-used protocol for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet. SSL has recently been succeeded by Transport Layer Security (TLS), which is based on SSL. SSL uses a program layer located between the Internet's Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and Transport Control Protocol (TCP) layers. SSL is included as part of both the Microsoft and Netscape browsers and most Web server products. URLs that require an SSL connection start with https: instead of http:. Answer C is incorrect. S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is a standard for public key encryption and signing of e- mail encapsulated in MIME. S/MIME provides the following cryptographic security services for electronic messaging applications: authentication, message integrity, non-repudiation of origin (using digital signatures), privacy, and data security (using encryption). Answer D is incorrect. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a client/server TCP/IP protocol used on the World Wide Web (WWW) to display Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) pages. HTTP defines how messages are formatted and transmitted, and what actions Web servers and browsers should take in response to various commands. For example, when a client application or browser sends a request to the server using HTTP commands, the server responds with a message containing the protocol version, success or failure code, server information, and body content, depending on the request. HTTP uses TCP port 80 as the default port. Answer B is incorrect. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a computer network that is implemented in an additional software layer (overlay) on top of an existing larger network for the purpose of creating a private scope of computer communications or providing a secure extension of a private network into an insecure network such as the Internet. The links between nodes of a Virtual Private Network are formed over logical connections or virtual circuits between hosts of the larger network. The Link Layer protocols of the virtual network are said to be tunneled through the underlying transport network.
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following is a patch management utility that scans one or more computers on a network and alerts a user if any important Microsoft security patches are missing and also provides links that enable those missing patches to be downloaded and installed?
- A. MBSA
- B. IDMS
- C. MABS
- D. ASNB
Answer: A
Explanation:
Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) is a tool that includes a graphical and command line interface that can perform local or remote scans of Windows systems. It runs on computers running Windows 2000, Windows XP, or Windows Server 2003 operating system. MBSA scans for common security misconfigurations in Windows NT 4.0, Windows 2000, Windows XP, Windows Server 2003, Internet Information Server (IIS) 4.0 and above, SQL Server 7.0 and 2000, and Office 2000 and 2002. It also scans for missing hot fixes in several Microsoft products, such as Windows 2000, Windows XP, SQL Server etc. Answer B, D, and A are incorrect. These are invalid options.
NEW QUESTION # 86
What are the various benefits of a software interface according to the "Enhancing the Development Life Cycle to Produce Secure Software" document? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
- A. It controls the accessing of a component.
- B. It modifies the implementation of a component without affecting the specifications of the interface.
- C. It provides a programmatic way of communication between the components that are working with different programming languages.
- D. It displays the implementation details of a component.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
The benefits of a software interface are as follows: It provides a programmatic way of communication between the components that are working with different programming languages. It prevents direct communication between components. It modifies the implementation of a component without affecting the specifications of the interface. It hides the implementation details of a component. It controls the accessing of a component. Answer C is incorrect. A software interface hides the implementation details of the component.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following policies can explain how the company interacts with partners, the company's goals and mission, and a general reporting structure in different situations?
- A. Selective
- B. Advisory
- C. Informative
- D. Regulatory
Answer: C
Explanation:
An informative policy informs employees about certain topics. It is not an enforceable policy, but rather one to teach individuals about specific issues relevant to the company. The informative policy can explain how the company interacts with partners, the company's goals and mission, and a general reporting structure in different situations. Answer D is incorrect. A regulatory policy ensures that an organization follows the standards set by specific industry regulations. This type of policy is very detailed and specific to a type of industry. The regulatory policy is used in financial institutions, health care facilities, public utilities, and other government-regulated industries, e.g., TRAI. Answer B is incorrect. An advisory policy strongly advises employees regarding which types of behaviors and activities should and should not take place within the organization. It also outlines possible ramifications if employees do not comply with the established behaviors and activities. The advisory policy can be used to describe how to handle medical information, handle financial transactions, and process confidential information. Answer C is incorrect. It is not a valid type of policy.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following terms ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data?
- A. Integrity
- B. Confidentiality
- C. Non-repudiation
- D. Authentication
Answer: A
Explanation:
Integrity ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data. Answer D is incorrect. Confidentiality refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access. Administrators can provide confidentiality by encrypting data. Answer A is incorrect. Non-repudiation is a mechanism to prove that the sender really sent this message. Answer C is incorrect. Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a person or network host.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following is a set of exclusive rights granted by a state to an inventor or his assignee for a fixed period of time in exchange for the disclosure of an invention?
- A. Snooping
- B. Utility model
- C. Copyright
- D. Patent
Answer: D
Explanation:
A patent is a set of exclusive rights granted by a state to an inventor or his assignee for a fixed period of time in exchange for the disclosure of an invention. Answer A is incorrect. A copyright is a form of intellectual property, which secures to its holder the exclusive right to produce copies of his or her works of original expression, such as a literary work, movie, musical work or sound recording, painting, photograph, computer program, or industrial design, for a defined, yet extendable, period of time. It does not cover ideas or facts. Copyright laws protect intellectual property from misuse by other individuals. Answer B is incorrect. Snooping is an activity of observing the content that appears on a computer monitor or watching what a user is typing. Snooping also occurs by using software programs to remotely monitor activity on a computer or network device. Hackers or attackers use snooping techniques and equipment such as keyloggers to monitor keystrokes, capture passwords and login information, and to intercept e-mail and other private communications. Sometimes, organizations also snoop their employees legitimately to monitor their use of organizations' computers and track Internet usage. Answer C is incorrect. A utility model is an intellectual property right to protect inventions.
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which of the following secure coding principles and practices defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it?
- A. Keep code simple and small
- B. Use a consistent coding style
- C. Make code forward and backward traceable
- D. Review code during and after coding
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Use a consistent coding style is one of the principles and practices that contribute to defensive coding. This principle defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it. For this purpose, all programmers of a team must follow the same guidelines. Answer: D is incorrect. Keep code simple and small defines that it is easy to verify the software security when a programmer uses small and simple code base. Answer: A is incorrect. Make code forward and backward traceable defines that traceability is necessary in order to validate requirements, prevent defects, and find and solve inconsistencies among all objects generated in the SDLC phases. Answer: B is incorrect. Review code during and after coding defines that code must be examined in order to identify coding errors in modules.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following configuration management system processes keeps track of the changes so that the latest acceptable configuration specifications are readily available?
- A. Configuration Control
- B. Configuration Status and Accounting
- C. Configuration Identification
- D. Configuration Verification and Audit
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The configuration status accounting procedure is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. It supports the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of accounting to the identified attributes for the purpose of maintaining software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle. The configuration status and accounting process keeps track of the changes so that the latest acceptable configuration specifications are readily available.
AnswerC is incorrect. The verification and audit processes seek to establish a high level of confidence in
how well the Configuration Management activity is working. AnswerA is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item's attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. AnswerD is incorrect. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed.
NEW QUESTION # 92
Which of the following models uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer to an object or that a subject can take from another subject?
- A. Take-Grant Protection Model
- B. Biba Integrity Model
- C. Bell-LaPadula Model
- D. Access Matrix
Answer: A
Explanation:
The take-grant protection model is a formal model used in the field of computer security to establish or disprove the safety of a given computer system that follows specific rules. It shows that for specific systems the question of safety is decidable in linear time, which is in general undecidable. The model represents a system as directed graph, where vertices are either subjects or objects. The edges between them are labeled and the label indicates the rights that the source of the edge has over the destination. Two rights occur in every instance of the model: take and grant. They play a special role in the graph rewriting rules describing admissible changes of the graph. Answer D is incorrect. The access matrix is a straightforward approach that provides access rights to subjects for objects. Answer C is incorrect. The Bell-LaPadula model deals only with the confidentiality of classified material. It does not address integrity or availability. Answer B is incorrect. The integrity model was developed as an analog to the Bell-LaPadula confidentiality model and then became more sophisticated to address additional integrity requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 93
Audit trail or audit log is a chronological sequence of audit records, each of which contains evidence directly pertaining to and resulting from the execution of a business process or system function. Under which of the following controls does audit control come?
- A. Detective controls
- B. Protective controls
- C. Preventive controls
- D. Reactive controls
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Audit trail or audit log comes under detective controls. Detective controls are the audit controls that are not needed to be restricted. Any control that performs a monitoring activity can likely be defined as a Detective Control. For example, it is possible that mistakes, either intentional or unintentional, can be made. Therefore, an additional Protective control is that these companies must have their financial results audited by an independent Certified Public Accountant. The role of this accountant is to act as an auditor. In fact, any auditor acts as a Detective control. If the organization in question has not properly followed the rules, a diligent auditor should be able to detect the deficiency which indicates that some control somewhere has failed. AnswerA is incorrect. Reactive or corrective controls typically work in response to a detective control, responding in such a way as to alert or otherwise correct an unacceptable condition. Using the example of account rules, either the internal Audit Committee or the SEC itself, based on the report generated by the external auditor, will take some corrective action. In this way, they are acting as a Corrective or Reactive control. AnswerC and D are incorrect. Protective or preventative controls serve to proactively define and possibly enforce acceptable behaviors. As an example, a set of common accounting rules are defined and must be followed by any publicly traded company. Each quarter, any particular company must publicly state its current financial standing and accounting as reflected by an application of these rules. These accounting rules and the SEC requirements serve as protective or preventative controls.
NEW QUESTION # 94
Which of the following tiers addresses risks from an information system perspective?
- A. Tier 2
- B. Tier 3
- C. Tier 1
- D. Tier 0
Answer: B
Explanation:
The information system level is the tier 3. It addresses risks from an information system perspective, and is guided by the risk decisions at tiers 1 and 2. Risk decisions at tiers 1 and 2 impact the ultimate selection and deployment of requisite safeguards. This also has an impact on the countermeasures at the information system level. The RMF primarily operates at tier3 but it can also have interactions at tiers 1 and 2. Answer A is incorrect. It is an invalid Tier description. Answer D is incorrect. The Organization Level is the Tier 1, and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. Answer C is incorrect. The mission and business process level is the Tier 2, and it addresses risks from the mission and business process perspective.
NEW QUESTION # 95
......
CSSLP Exam Dumps Pass with Updated 2024 Certified Exam Questions: https://pass4lead.premiumvcedump.com/ISC/valid-CSSLP-premium-vce-exam-dumps.html